At the beginning of Jesus High Priestly prayer in John 17, of Himself He declares, "you have given him authority over ALL FLESH, to give eternal life to ALL whom you have GIVEN HIM." (v.2) This statement is universal in His authority over all flesh and particular in that He refers specifically to those the Father has given Him out of all flesh. He does not give eternal life to some of those the Father has given him but to ALL He has given Him. He further prays, "I am not praying for the world but for those whom you have GIVEN ME, for they are yours" (John 17:9).
In the context of John 17, the persons He prays for (those the Father has given him) are the same ones which he sanctifies. He prays, "And for their sake I consecrate myself, that they also may be sanctified in truth." (V 18). His consecrating of himself is referring specifically to his atoning act for them. Sanctification is a redemptive work. He makes a clear distinction of those He prays for and those He does not before going to the cross for them. When he speaks later of all those who believe in Him through the apostles teaching he also refers to them as those the Father has "given him" (v.24), so, in addition to the "all flesh" cited in verse 2, they are also included among them in this verse. A recurring pattern is demonstrated here and in other parts of the gospel of John is that the "giving" of the Father precedes their coming to faith in Him
So in the context itself Jesus plainly teaches that he is praying for and sanctifying those the Father has given Him, and them only. He does not sanctify any but those He prays for.
John 17 is not the only place Jesus speaks this way. In John chapter 6 Jesus also discusses those the Father has given Him. And the context of of Jesus giving Himself as the "bread of life" is not for Jews only, as some oddly attempt to claim. He declares (and I quote) "For the bread of God is he who comes down from heaven and gives life to the WORLD.” - John 6:33. The world here is not referring exclusively to Jews. The context of the entire passage is faith and eternal life to any who come to Him. He declares, "whoever comes to me shall not hunger, and whoever believes in me shall never thirst." (v 35) So "coming" to Christ and "believing" in him are synonymous in this passage. And he declares ALL, not some, but all that the Father gives to him will come to him (i.e believe in him) v 17. Notice, without question, the Father giving them to the Son precedes their coming to faith in Him.
(QUOTE) "All that the Father gives me will come to me, and whoever comes to me I will never cast out. For I have come down from heaven, not to do my own will but the will of him who sent me. And this is the will of him who sent me, that I should lose nothing of all that he has given me, but raise it up on the last day." John 6:37-39
Jesus will lose nothing of those the Father has given him out of the world.
Who is the "they" that Jesus "sanctifies" in John 17:19? (see 17 v. 9 & 24)
Is the "sanctification" of "those the Father has given him" part of Jesus redemptive work? Or is it non-redemptive?
If Christ begins our sanctification, will He infallibly bring it to pass? (See John 6:37b)